Originally posted by SithLord+Jan 20 2006, 08:14 PM--><div class='quotetop'>QUOTE(SithLord @ Jan 20 2006, 08:14 PM)</div>
@Jan 20 2006, 07:49 PM
Thomas I ask again have you read the court papers?  His direct solicitation to California residents, that LFL called him on was in regards to personal emails specifically address and titled by name to California residents soliciting new products while he denied targeting California residents to the courts at the same time... He was also advertising in a US based magazine, yes it has International distribution, but it's primary audience is the US...
Yes I've read every word of the court papers..thank-you for your research on that. I know about the emailsÂ…I got them myself. But I don't live in California so if he was targeting California then why did I get one as well? There's no logic. And the only reason emails were sent was to inform previous customers independent of where they lived. If CA residents were targeted specifically then so too were people in Poland. How can both be specifically targeted if the emails were sent out indescriminantly?
So yes AA lied in regards to not directly soliciting sales to California...
The keyword is directly. Which is false. There was no sales campaign directed specifically to CA since I got the emails as well.
First you are taking a giant leap in assuming there wasn't any contract, there was AA admits to making the helmets for a certain pound amount, thus he did make a deal... The fact that LFL has not brought it forward in the case thus far was explained, but you don't seem to grasp the rules of Federal court and when things are done...
Giant jeap? Hardly. If there was this magical contract then it would have appeared in the initial complaint and the case would be irrefutable. Why would LFL waste an incredible amount of money on legal fees amending complaints, etc., grasping at straws if they had the one thing that would lock down the case?
Also the law is not as black and white as you paint the picture, again only flaunting the side that fits your argument...
Please be so kind as to point out the side that I've missed. The law is black and white. No contract. No rights.
Pivital concept and wordings is 'contract of employment' AA admits being paid for his work, thus employed, and there was obviously some sort of agreement, be it verbal or in writing thus creating a legal binding contract in the UK... Was he employed as an employee, freelance artist or contractor?  Would that make any difference? The law isn't specific and that decission would have to be based on previous case law...
There's a difference between an employment contract, a contract for services, and a contract to transfer copyright. The law is clear in regard to freelance versus bona fide employees. Employees lose the rights. Freelance artists retain them in the absence of a contract stating otherwise. If you are well versed in the law or have access to legal counsel, then please prove me wrongÂ….because LFL has done nothing to address UK law in their complaint. Why? Because they would have no foot to stand onÂ…
:cheers,
Thomas
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